I would really think so. And since you have sold several Invicta's you may be able to do some math and know for sure. What kind of percentage loss did you take from what you paid out for the Invicta's and what you got in return?
My guess, and mind you it is only a guess, if you purchased a new Hamilton and a new Invicta on the same day and paid exactly the same, and then one year later you put them both up for sale, and they were in the exact same condition, I would think the Hamilton just may not take as big a hit in depreciated value as the Invicta did.
As I said, that is just what I would guess. As you have sold several watches (I believe) and I further presume more than just Invicta's over the years have you found this to be the case? I have often wondered about this so I am looking forward to hearing what you have learned.
BTW, we miss you over in cheese land!:001_tt2:
Charlie